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The
doctrine of hell has been taught for thousands of years in
various forms. This doctrine has existed throughout pagan
thought, where the wicked were alive and imprisoned upon
their death. And Josephus remarks: "[The
Pharisees] believe that souls have an immortal vigor in
them, and that under the earth there will be rewards or
punishments, according as they have lived virtuously or
viciously in this life; and the latter are to be detained
in an everlasting prison, but that the former shall have
power to revive and live again."
We
also note that in contrast the Sadducees
believed "that souls die with the bodies,"
which as we have elsewhere laid out, is also the opinion
here taken. As this article is essentially an extension
of
our discussion on the soul, we recommend that all
intending to read this article begin there.
If we are to maintain that the soul dies upon death how do
we understand the numerous texts used in an effort to
prove the doctrine of hell? What is Hades, which is also
called Sheol? What is Gehenna? How do these relate to
each other? How should we understand the texts that
make reference to torment?
Looking to the Bible we observe that the words Hades and
Sheol simply denote the grave. This place is typically
considered to be within the Earth. It is a place where
even the living are describing as going into alive. (Num.
16:30, 33; Psa. 55:15) It is a place where both the
righteous (Job. 14:13; Act. 2:27) and the wicked (Psa.
31:17) go when they die. Even Jonah, though still alive,
considered himself to be in Sheol for he thought that the
belly of the fish would be his grave. (Jon. 2:2)
If we take Sheol/Hades to simply denote
the grave where do ones derive that it is a place of
conscious existence? Some have pointed to Isaiah
14:9-10 where it speaks in many translations of "the ghosts [or
spirits] of the dead" being roused up and speaking.
Does this indicate that the wicked live on after death,
and more so that they are existing in a place of torment?
Consciousness in Sheol?
Examining the context of Isaiah 14 to is our first step.
In doing this we note
verse four where this passage is termed a "proverb," with some
translations simply rendering it as a “taunt.” In the
case of this text, BDB observes that it is properly
understood as a “parable."
It is not that these events were literally occurring, but
that God, through Isaiah, was speaking figuratively. This
is clearly evident when he speaks of trees themselves speaking. (Isa.
14:8) Are the trees conscious and able to speak?
Obviously not, and so it could not be argued that the dead
are literally conscious and speaking. Rather, as Gill
notes, "[they]
are here represented as if they did
[speak]."
That Sheol is simply the grave and not a place of departed
souls is seen by the context as well. Having come down to
Sheol, the Babylonian King is not in a place of
departed souls, but he is simply in the grave, where "maggots
are spread out" and "worms are [his] covering." (Isa.
14:10)
How do we understand the reference to "the spirits of the
dead"? The Theological
Wordbook of the Old Testament explains: “The primary fact concerning the eight occurrences of the root in
the O[ld] T[estament] is that it appears exclusively in
poetic passages. Its use is prescribed as a "B" word or
second synonym in parallel series. The most common
parallelism is death (dead)/ghosts (Prov.
2:18; Isa 26:14, 19 a more complex
poetic structure; Psa 88:10, 11 [H 11,12]). The
parallelism ghosts/sheol occurs in two passages (Prov
9:18; Job 26:5). In one other passage the parallelism is
reversed to form sheol/ghosts (Isa 14:9) and in another
single instance (Prov 21:16) a complicated parallelism of
what has been called the modified "staircase" type sets
"foolish men"/ to ghosts. It is clear that this ancient quasi-mythological term was
used merely to satisfy the requirements of Hebrew poetic
structure and in no way indicates any specific connotation
to the root r®p¹°îm other than as a synonym for 'the dead'
and the 'place of the dead.'"
[emphasis added] In other words, though this passage is
sometimes translated as referring to "the spirits of the
dead," it simply refers to "the dead," for people's
spirits are something that God "gives," which returned to
him in heaven. (Ecc. 12:7) Scripture never speaks of
people's spirits as carrying on their life after death.
The 32nd
chapter of Ezekiel well parallels what we have observed
within the writings of Isaiah. Here the dead are again
seen as speaking, but instead of being directed towards
the King of Babylon, it is to "Pharaoh the king of
Egypt."
(Eze. 32:2) Gill terms this "a poetical figure,"
cross-referencing this passage with Isaiah 14:9, a
parallel that Jamieson, Fausset and Brown also observe.
As a parallel, this passage to would carry the same
symbolism, showing the dead speaking though unable, just
as the trees in Isaiah.
By way of
the context we can ascertain that Sheol cannot be anything
more than the physical grave. Looking to verse 27 we see that they "have gone down
to Sheol with their weapons of war.” Just as the
King of Babylon could not have been with maggots in a
spirit realm, neither could these have taken their
physical weapons to such a place.
These
texts, when originally recorded, were directed to those
who were pagan. (Isa. 14:4) Even as we read them
today they are recorded as being directed toward them.
They believed in a life after death and so to speak of the
dead as conscious was natural to them. God's use of a
situation that they were familiar with does not mean that
we should believe he endorsed such a teaching.
Rather, in making use of language that they could relate
to he taught them something. In doing this he also
demonstrated the falsehood of the view by not only showing
Sheol to be the literal grave and not a place of departed
souls, but by also using other absurdities such as that of
trees speaking.
The Rich
Man and Lazarus
A final
text that some consider to be speaking of a place of
existence for the wicked dead is Luke 16:19-31(We suggest
reading this passage of text, ideally considering all of
Luke 15 and 16 before continuing in this discussion). Here
we read of the rich man and Lazarus. That this is a
parable is testified to by both Matthew and Mark, who
explain that Jesus would only teach them by way of
parables (Matt. 13:34; Mar. 4:34). We also take note
of the context dictating that this was a parable, with the
entire context leading up to this passage being that of
parables. Luke 15:3 relates that "he told them
[another] parable," showing that what preceded this were
parables, there being three others in total. Indeed,
we might ask whether Jesus ever related a story that was
not intended to be a parable.
Jesus' words are understood to be directed toward the
Pharisees In prefacing this parable Luke notes that
they were listening to Jesus, and with him recognizing
this it is not surprising that he would direct some type
of teaching/rebuke toward them. (Luk. 16:14) That he did this
is effectively confirmed in Luke 16:18 where Jesus
condemns divorce, something they allow for, thus leading into the
parable.
Being directed to the Pharisees, Jesus made use of
language that they would understand, drawing upon what
then existed in Pharisaic tradition. He did this in
a manner similar to Isaiah 14, where the concept of
consciousness in death was drawn upon for the king of
Babylon. This does not mean that Jesus was endorsing
the belief any more than God did in Isaiah 14.
Rather, recognizing that the Pharisees could not be
reached with the truth because of their hardened
condition, (Mat. 13:14-15) he drew upon language that they
could understand. In doing this he included within
the text a number of absurdities to demonstrate the
falsehood of any literal view of such a state (referenced
throughout below), thus demonstrating the error of their
doctrine.
Of the
objections to this being a parable, the foremost of them
is Jesus' use of a proper name. While this is the only
recorded parable where he did make use of one, we cannot
be dogmatic in asserting that he never did.
(c.f. Joh. 21:25) We must observe that other parables
within scripture do use proper names, such as in Ezekiel 23
where we read of Oholah and Oholibah as women representing
Samaria and Jerusalem. This one example is
sufficient in demonstrating that proper names can be used
in parables.
The name
Lazarus is extremely significant to the parable. As we
will come to see, Lazarus has gone from a miserable state
to a state of well being. Hence his name literally means,
"He who God helps." In this context, Lazarus could only
represent "the sinners and tax collectors" with whom Jesus
was eating. (Luk. 15:1-2)
The rich
man clearly denotes the Pharisees. We note
that they had been listening to him and speaking against
him. (Luk 15:2) The context is set for Jesus' parable
with
Luke identifying them as lovers of money. (Luk.
16:14) They are said to "set themselves in the sight of
men" (Luk. 16:15) in that they make an outward show to
esteem themselves in front of people. This is seen in the
parable by way of the rich man being dressed in purple and fine
linen.
Jesus' "eating" with the sinners and
tax collectors, as represented by Lazarus, included
providing them with spiritual food through teaching.
(Luk:15:2) It
is then natural to take the crumbs that Lazarus desired
to be spiritual food, teaching from God's word. (Mat. 4:4)
The people had desired these from the Pharisees but they did not
provide them.
The dogs that would come and lick on his wounds show just
how deplorable Lazarus' situation was. The International
Standard Bible Encyclopedia explains: "References to the
dog, both in the Old Testament and in the New Testament,
are usually of a contemptuous character."
Dogs were considered unclean (Deut. 23:18) and yet
Lazarus, in such an unfortunate position, would not even
remove himself from their presence. As unclean
animals, they made Lazarus unclean, showing the standing
of those represented by Lazarus before God. This was
largely due to the poor guidance of the Pharisees and the
lack spiritual food that they received.
The death of Lazarus and the rich
man denote a change in position. They died with respects
to their previous state, as is also the case with
Christians when they come to Christ. Albert Barnes
explains: "To be dead to a thing is a strong expression
denoting that it has no influence over us."
In this case, they are dead to their previous ways of
life.
When did
this change take place and what caused it? In setting the
stage to this parable Jesus explained: "The Law and the
Prophets were until John; from then the
kingdom of
God
is being preached, and everyone is pressing into it." The
change that took place with the coming of John,
when he introduced the preaching of the
kingdom of
God.
It was not that the Hebrew Scriptures did not present the
Kingdom, but they did not fully reveal all that it would
encompass. With John and then Jesus the Kingdom was
fully realized. By this the sinners went after the Kingdom.
On the other hand, the Pharisees, who had set themselves in a position
of service to God, changed their position and were working
against the kingdom. Spiritually one group went from
a rich state to a state of torment, while other group went
from a poor state to one that was favored.
Each person's prior
position is given as the basis for their current position,
further showing this text to not being teaching any type
of doctrine. In the parable, Abraham relates: "Child,
remember that you fully received your good things in your
lifetime, and Lazarus likewise the bad things. But now he
is comforted, and you are suffering." No other
ground is given for the torment of the rich man or for the
blessings of Lazarus. The rich man had merely received "fully"
what was good, and so there was no more good for him to
receive. Similarly, Lazarus "fully" received what
was bad and so he was now blessed. The rich man is
only said to have lived well, while the poor man is only
said to have lived poorly. In reality, one's
standard of living has no basis in their salvation.
Their faith and obedience are the determining factors in
salvation or condemnation, and neither of these are seen
in view within the parable.
We
are next told that Lazarus was carried off to Abraham's
bosom. We must be careful to observe that the text reads
nothing of "the soul of Lazarus," but it tells us only of
his whole self. The bosom position denotes
a position of favor. The ISBE comments: "In a fig[urative]
sense it denotes intimacy and unrestrained intercourse
(Gen 16:5; 2 S 12:8); tender care and watchfulness (Isa
40:11); closest intimacy and most perfect knowledge (Joh
1:18)."
His
favored position was found in that, through Jesus,
Abraham's seed, "the
Kingdom of God was in [his] midst." (Luk. 17:21)
They had the instruction and hope provided by Abraham
through his seed. They were now being comforted and
blessed by Abraham.
The text
goes on to say that the rich man was buried. He is
never carried off to a place, but simply buried.
Being buried he is in Hades, his grave. As with
Lazarus, nothing is mentioned of the rich man's soul.
While Lazarus was described as being carried off the rich man
was simply buried. When the sinners that are
represented by Lazarus died they are not said to be
buried. This is because they have turned to God’s
service. In their change to life, they die to their
former course and actually come to life. (Rom. 6:11)
Thus they are said to have been carried off by angels.
On the other hand, the Pharisees, whom the rich man
represents, are in Hades, their grave, for they are dead
before God.
The rich
man is in torment because he has lost favor with God.
The Pharisees see that Jesus is performing many miracles
and that he truly is a great teacher, and yet they are
blinded to the fact that he is the chosen one of God.
He is the Messiah, fulfilling the many prophecies of
Scripture, and yet when they seem him doing these things
they are unable to make the connection despite the fact
that they were looking for him. This fulfills what is said by John
when he quotes Isaiah at John 12:40. They feel hatred
toward him and jealousy which is their torment. Their
inability to see the truth is what is represented by the
great chasm that Jesus speaks of. (Luk. 16:26)
The rich
man next looks and asks Abraham to send Lazarus only a
drop of water to cool his tongue. In a literal fire, a
drop of water would do nothing to cool his tongue. Indeed,
when one has a strong thirst a drop of water does nothing.
How much less would it do were one literally in a fire. It
must also be pointed out that if the rich man were only a
soul he would not have a tongue, which is a physical body part. Here
though we are dealing with symbols, and that drop of water
is a drop of faith. With only a drop of faith his
torments would be eliminated. After relating this parable
Jesus explained to his disciples that with faith the size of a mustard
grain they could move mountains. In other words, a little
faith would go a long way. However, even the rich man
could not be given even a little faith. (c.f. Luk. 17:5-6)
The rich
man is next found asking that somebody from the dead go to
teach his brothers the truth so that they
might have faith and not torment. This request for
somebody to go back from the dead parallel's the
Pharisees' request for a sign from Jesus. (Mat.
12:38, 39) The implication is that the rich man was not given
sufficient knowledge and warning of the Messiah's coming
and so it was really is not his fault that he was in
torment. Abraham responds by stating that the Law and the
Prophets are sufficient. These are the word of God and if
he and his brothers do not believe these they will not
believe anything at all.
Understanding the parable makes it much easier to see how
it is not teaching an afterlife. The figures used
are perfectly applicable to those alive, including "dying"
and being in Sheol/Hades. We can reasonably say
that due to
the Hellenistic influence that had crept into Judaism by
the 1st century the doctrine of consciousness after death
was fairly common knowledge. As we have observed
these teachings were even reaching into certain sects of Judaism.
Nevertheless, if the parable were reality in the sense of
a physical death, it would contradict the Biblical
teaching of both the wicked and the righteous going to Sheol. We would
see that the righteous before Abraham's death had no place to go.
They preceded Abraham in death and so the place for the
righteous dead could not yet exist!. This would
present difficulty for Abel and others at their death.
Further, we would see that the righteous go to Abraham's
bosom position, while it is truly impossible for all
righteous people to be in the bosom of one man.
There are simply too many absurdities in the parable and
inconsistencies with other Scripture to give any kind of
thought to this parable presenting the reality of a life
after death. It is the absurdity of it that
allowed Jesus to make use of the language in a parable
without teaching it as reality.
As a parable this text cannot rightfully be appealed to for
doctrine. The purpose was not to teach of a reality,
but to make use of language to teach a moral lesson.
It is entirely natural to use figurative language or
the language of a known tradition (true or not) to teach
such a lesson, but one would never look to that for
doctrine. While
believing that the parable is in line with what happens
after death, Alfred Edersheim comments on this text: “It
is, indeed, true, that we must not look in this Parabolic
language for Christ’s teachings about the ‘after death.’”
A further
point we must be consider is that while Sheol/Hades is
spoken of as the place of torment, the lake of fire is
actually the place where the wicked end up and where the
Devil is described as being tormented. (Rev. 20:10, 15) In fact, Sheol/Hades is also said to be thrown into
this lake of fire, (Rev. 20:14) demanding that the parable
not speak of the place of eternal torment for the
wicked. What then does the Bible teach about the
lake of fire?
Fire and Brimstone
What then
of this lake of fire? Will humans here be tormented
forever? Certainly the devil is described as being
tormented, but he is said to be so along side symbols, the
beast and the false prophet. (Rev. 19:20) Further, death and
Hades are said to be thrown there, neither of which are
able to be physically tormented. It is also
indicated that the lake of fire is also a symbol, which
"is" or "means" the second death. (Rev. 20:14) If
the two that are first thrown into the lake of fire are
symbols and the lake of fire itself is a symbol, it is
hard to rationalize how the torment would also not be
symbolic.
What then
happens in "the lake of fire?" Looking to "death"
being one of what is put in there, we can easily find the
answer. Revelation 21:4 tells us that "death will be
no more." It will be done away with completely.
Similarly, 1 Corinthians 15:27 explains that death will be
"abolished." It will no longer exist. As this
is an explicit statement of what will happen to one thing
that is throne there outside of figurative language, we
can conclusively see how the symbolism is to be
interpreted.
Some have
pointed to Revelation 14 where we do read of the wicked
being tormented with fire and brimstone. These ones are
not described as being in the lake of fire and we find
that the torment spoken of actually takes place while they
are alive on Earth. Revelation 14:9 tells us that those
who will receive the torment are those that worship the
beast and have his mark. Their punishment will be to
drink the wine of the wrath of God. It is in drinking
this cup that they are tormented with fire and brimstone.
When would this take place? Apparently it is well before
the final judgment, as we find that the thousand year
reign of Christ takes place between the time when the
beast is thrown into the lake of fire (Rev. 19:20) and
when the final judgment occurs. (Rev. 20:5, 12-15)
The ones
who experience torment are said to do so in that they
"will drink the wine of the anger of God." (Rev. 14:10)
Chapter 15 introduces us to seven angels that will pour
out seven bowls, which has completed in them "the anger of
God" (Rev. 15:1), as the bowls that they pour out are
"filled with the anger of God." Therefore, it must
be through these seven angels that they experience this
anger and thus through them that these people are tormented.
Examining
the plagues in chapter 16 of Revelation we find that they
can be classified as nothing less than torment. When
these ones experience the plagues undoubtedly they "have
no rest night and day" (Rev. 14:11), though we are never
told that this is for eternity. It is only the smoke of
their torment, not the torment itself, which goes up
forever. This text takes us back to Isaiah 34:10, where
Edom is symbolically said to have smoke go up forever and
also forward to when Babylon the Great "will be found no
more at all" (Rev. 18:21) and yet "her smoke rises up
forever and ever." (Rev. 19:3) How so?
Smoke can
be seen from afar. When a person looks into the distance
they can see smoke without actually seeing whatever is
causing the smoke. In the same way, we can look back
in time at Edom and it serves as a warning example of
God's judgment. It is in this same way that the
smoke of those who turn against God will go up forever.
They will be judged and then punished by plagues that lead
up to their deaths. We will forever remember the
judgment that they were given and so the smoke is
described as ascending for eternity.
It can further be
confirmed that Revelation 14 is not reference to the final
judgment by comparing it to other Scriptures that speak on
the matter. In Revelation chapter 14 and verse 9 we
read that the torment experienced here is done "before
[or, in the presence of] the holy angels and before the
Lamb." That this is done in the presence of Jesus
himself is key, for the execution of the final judgment is
done apart from his presence. These ones, we are
told, will experience "everlasting
destruction from the face of the Lord." (2Thes. 1:9)
While those who experience the torment of Revelation 14
are before the Lord, the ones who experience everlasting
destruction are "from the face" of him. This "has
simply the sense of separation,"
as Vincent explains. In the final judgment those
executed will find themselves apart from Jesus' presence,
in contrast to these ones that are experiencing the
torment of Revelation 14 while in it.
A Place
of Weeping and Gnashing of Teeth
Having
examined these texts, we would now reference back to
Jesus' words where he speaks of a "fiery furnace" where
individuals experience "weeping and gnashing of teeth."
This expression of anguish is used seven times within
scripture both in Jesus' discussions and his parables,
where ones are also said to be thrown into the “outer
darkness.” (Mat. 8:12)
Examining
the meaning of the expression in relation to the fiery
furnace, we will consider Matthew 13:24-42. We here learn
of a sower who sewed good seed but had his enemy come and
sew bad seed amongst what he had sewn. The sower
then waits until the harvest time to separate the good
seed from the bad. The harvest occurs at the end of
the age. The harvest is described in Revelation
14:14-20, where the vine of the earth is said to be ripe
and the angels went out and harvested the wicked and
executed them. This harvest of the wicked takes
place through the seven cups of God’s judgment and the
final execution of the beast’s army. (Rev. 16:1-21; 19:21)
During the time of these plagues, is the weeping and gnashing of teeth. This
is seen in both their anger against God and in the pain
they suffer. Yet this is never described by Jesus as
eternal state.
That this
is not the final judgment can be seen in that this does
take place at the harvest and not have the thousand years.
This is not "the second death", it is the first death, a
physical execution that might be compared to God’s
execution of Sodom or to the many other
nations that he has destroyed. It is during this time that they
experience a weeping and gnashing of teeth. The final
judgment at the lake of fire does not take place until
after the 1,000 year reign and the final judgment. This
is a judgment, but it is not the final judgment that comes
out of what is written in the scroll of life.
In
Matthew 25 we find another case of weeping and gnashing of
teeth in “the outer darkness”, which apparently occurs at
the final judgment, where the righteous go to everlasting
life, but the wicked to the lake of fire. (Mat. 25:41)
Looking to verses 30-45 we see that those condemned are
not sent off to their punishment until after the righteous
are given their reward. Here they do not understand
why they are not being given life, asking Jesus how they
were expected to do the things he demanded, which was to
feed and cloth him when they never saw him. The
weeping and gnashing of teeth is found in what they
experience while
watching the others go off to their reward while not
understanding their condemnation. This concludes in their
destruction.
Can it
then be said that mankind really experiences the eternal
punishment that Jesus spoke of in Matthew 25:46 if they
are not tormented? Indeed many do experience torment
through the bowls of God’s anger and all of the wicked
will experience punishment, but there is nothing to
indicate that the punishment is eternal. The Apostle Paul
tells us that the wages sin pays is death (Rom. 6:23), not
any type of torment. Just as flesh is destroyed by fire,
so will the soul be destroyed in Gehenna, the lake of
fire. (Matt. 10:28)
What
though of heavenly life? Do the righteous go to heaven
when they die? As we have elsewhere discussed there is no
scripture that indicates that the soul departs from the
body to live on. What then of the texts used as proofs
for life in heaven at death? Please see our discussion,
Heavenly Life – On Death or the Resurrection?
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